Has anyone ever noticed that in the Bible, God slaughters thousands of Egyptian children in order to free his people from slavery (Exod 12:29-30), BUT then immediately instructs his people on how to make slaves of their own (Exod. 21:2-7; Lev. 25:44-46)?
“At midnight the LORD struck down all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, from the firstborn of Pharaoh who sat on his throne to the firstborn of the prisoner who was in the dungeon, and all the firstborn of the livestock. (30) Pharaoh arose in the night, he and all his officials and all the Egyptians; and there was a loud cry in Egypt, for there was not a house without someone dead.” (NRSV)
“When you buy a male Hebrew slave, he shall serve six years, but in the seventh he shall go out a free person, without debt. (3) If he comes in single, he shall go out single; if he comes in married, then his wife shall go out with him. (4) If his master gives him a wife and she bears him sons or daughters, the wife and her children shall be her master’s and he shall go out alone. (5) But if the slave declares, “I love my master, my wife, and my children; I will not go out a free person,” (6) then his master shall bring him before God. He shall be brought to the door or the doorpost; and his master shall pierce his ear with an awl; and he shall serve him for life. (7) When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she shall not go out as the male slaves do…” (NRSV)
“As for the male and female slaves whom you may have, it is from the nations around you that you may acquire male and female slaves. (45) You may also acquire them from among the aliens residing with you, and from their families that are with you, who have been born in your land; and they may be your property. (46) You may keep them as a possession for your children after you, for them to inherit as property. These you may treat as slaves, but as for your fellow Israelites, no one shall rule over the other with harshness.”
So God is OK with slavery, as long as they are foreigners.
[And in the NT, slaves are commanded to continue to obey their masters.]
“Slaves, obey your earthly masters in everything, not only while being watched and in order to please them, but wholeheartedly, fearing the Lord.” (NRSV)
1 Pet. 2:18
“Slaves, submit yourselves to your masters with all respect, not only to those who are good and considerate, but also to those who are harsh.” (NIV)
“Slaves, obey your earthly masters with fear and trembling, in singleness of heart, as you obey Christ” (NRSV)
So, tell me again how God is the objective moral foundation for all time?
(And please don’t claim “prooftexting” or “out of context”: these verses mean exactly what they say, and they mean the very same thing in their fuller context. Besides, in what context would the supreme God of the universe ever say that it’s OK to own other people as property?)
(And quick, someone tell me how I am not reading this properly because I do not “possess” the
seer stone Holy Spirit. Please tell me that this “revealed Scripture” doesn’t really mean what it says.)
(And before you make the “slavery was totally different back then” argument, read here.)
I welcome comments.
Filed under: atheism / agnosticism, bible, christianity, fundamentalism, judaism | Tagged: 1 Pet. 2:18, biblical, Col. 3:22, dilemma, Eph. 6:5, ethics, Exod 21:2-7, foreigners, fundamentalism, god, humanism, hypocrisy, Lev. 25:44-46, morality, problem, slavery |